Paper
COMMON MANAGEMENT ADMISSION TEST (CMAT) : 2012
Submitted by MBAguru on Tue, 12/06/2011 - 09:17COMMON MANAGEMENT ADMISSION TEST (CMAT)
AICTE is conducting the first National level Common Management Admission Test (CMAT)-2012 for facilitating institutions to select suitable students for admission in all management programmes approved by AICTE for the year 2012-13. The testing window for computer based test will be open for nine days i.e. from 20th February, 2012 to 28th February, 2012 in 61 cities. The candidates will have option of selecting date and city for appearing in the test.
The initiative has been taken to address the issue of physical, mental and financial burden being imposed on the students through a multitude of entrance examinations being followed by the institutions for admission into all Management Programmes in AICTE approved institutions and University Departments.
(Download) Symbiosis National Aptitude (SNAP) Model Test Paper

Symbiosis National Aptitude (SNAP) Model Test Paper
INSTRUCTIONS:
Please read these carefully before attempting the test
1. This test is based on pattern of this years’ SNAP paper.
2. There are five sections.
Section 1- General English (24 questions) Section 2- Quantitative Ability (30 questions)
Section 3- Data Interpretation & Data Sufficiency (40 questions) Section 4-Analytical reasoning and Logical ability(40 Questions) Section 5-Business Awareness and GK(25 Questions)
3. The total time allotted is 2 hours exactly. Please note your start time and end time on the answer sheet. Do not take more than 2 hours, or you will get a wrong assessment.
4. Please fill all the details, as asked on top of the answer sheet.
5. Please try to maximize your attempt overall, but you need to do well in all sections.
6. There is 1 mark for every right answer and 0.25 negative mark for every wrong one.
7. There is no sectional time limit.
8. Since it is a time constrained test and you have 2 hours, and all questions carry equal marks, please do not get stuck on any question, move fast to try and do easier ones.
9. Please do all scratch work on paper only, no extra sheets to be used. Put all your answers on the answer sheet.
GRE Revised General Test: Analytical Writing Question Types
GRE Revised General Test: Quantitative Reasoning Question Types
The Analytical Writing section of the GRE® revised General Test consists of two separately timed analytical writing tasks:
- An Analyze an Issue task
- An Analyze an Argument task
Analyze An Issue Task
The Analyze an Issue task assesses your ability to think critically about a topic of general interest and to clearly express your thoughts about it in writing. Each issue statement makes a claim that you can discuss from various perspectives and apply to many different situations or conditions. The issue statement is followed by a set of specific instructions. The specific instructions could be one of the following:
- Write a response in which you discuss the extent to which you agree or disagree with the statement and explain your reasoning for the position you take. In developing and supporting your position, you should consider ways in which the statement might or might not hold true and explain how these considerations shape your position.
- Write a response in which you discuss the extent to which you agree or disagree with the recommendation and explain your reasoning for the position you take. In developing and supporting your position, describe specific circumstances in which adopting the recommendation would or would not be advantageous and explain how these examples shape your position.
- Write a response in which you discuss the extent to which you agree or disagree with the claim. In developing and supporting your position, be sure to address the most compelling reasons or examples that could be used to challenge your position.
- Write a response in which you discuss which view more closely aligns with your own position and explain your reasoning for the position you take. In developing and supporting your position, you should address both of the views presented above.
- Write a response in which you discuss the extent to which you agree or disagree with the claim AND the reason on which that claim is based.
- Write a response in which you discuss your views on the policy above and explain your reasoning for the position you take. In developing and supporting your position, you should consider the possible consequences of implementing the policy and explain how these consequences shape your position.
GRE Revised General Test: Quantitative Reasoning Question Types
GRE Revised General Test: Quantitative Reasoning Question Types
The revised Quantitative Reasoning section contains four types of questions:
- Multiple-choice Questions — Select One Answer Choice
- Multiple-choice Questions — Select One or More Answer Choices
- Numeric Entry Questions
- Quantitative Comparison Questions
Each question appears either independently as a discrete question or as part of a set of questions called a Data Interpretation set. All of the questions in a Data Interpretation set are based on the same data presented in tables, graphs or other displays of data. Below are descriptions, directions and samples of each type of question.
Multiple-choice Questions — Select One Answer Choice
These questions are multiple-choice questions that ask you to select only one answer choice from a list of five choices.
Sample Questions
Directions: Select a single answer choice.

GRE Revised General Test: Verbal Reasoning Question Types
GRE Revised General Test: Verbal Reasoning Question Types
The GRE Verbal Reasoning section of the GRE® revised General Test contains three types of questions:
- Reading Comprehension
- Text Completion
- Sentence Equivalence
Reading Comprehension questions appear in sets; Text Completion and Sentence Equivalence questions are independent.
Reading Comprehension Questions:
There are three types of Reading Comprehension questions:
- Multiple-choice Questions: Select One Answer Choice: These are the traditional multiple-choice questions with five answer choices of which you must select one.
- Multiple-choice Questions: Select One or More Answer Choices: These provide three answer choices and ask you to select all that are correct; one, two or all three of the answer choices may be correct. To gain credit for these questions, you must select all the correct answers, and only those; there is no credit for partially correct answers.
- Select-in-Passage: The question asks you to click on the sentence in the passage that meets a certain description. To answer the question, you choose one of the sentences and click on it; clicking anywhere on a sentence will highlight it.
AIMA MAT Sample Question Paper Solved: February 2011
AIMA MAT Sample Question Paper Solved: February 2011
TEST STRUCTURE AND SAMPLE QUESTIONS
MAT is an objective type test designed and developed to ascertain the aptitude of the candidates to undergo Post Graduate Programme in Management. Aptitude is the potential of an individual to perform subsequent to proper training. Therefore MAT is designed to identify the potential. It is tested and perfected over a decade.
The MAT has five sections, each section having forty questions. The total 200 questions are to be attempted over 150 minutes.
The test structure is given below:
| Section No. | Section Name | No. of Questions | Time Suggested (Minutes) |
|---|---|---|---|
| I | Language Comprehension | 40 | 30 |
| II | Mathematical Skills | 40 | 40 |
| III | Data Analysis & Sufficiency | 40 | 35 |
| IV | Intelligence & Critical Reasoning | 40 | 30 |
| V | Indian & Global Environment | 40 | 15 |
| Total | 200 | 150 |
SAMPLE QUESTIONS
A few sample questions are given below for the guidance of the candidates in the preparation. These samples do not necessarily indicate either the types or the difficulty levels of questions that can be in the actual test. In general the preparation standard expected is that of a graduate from an Indian University having completed 10 + 2 + 3 pattern of education. However, the knowledge level required for attempting the section on Mathematical Skills is that of 10th standard under Central Board of Secondary Education.
(Download) NMAT Sample Test Paper (English, Quantitative & Reasoning)
NMAT Sample Test Paper
(English, Quantitative & Reasoning)
1) Employers often require that candidates have not only a degree in
engineering _____________________ .
1. but two years experience
2. also two years experience
3. but also two years experience
4. but more two years experience
2) The rain forest _________large trees that provide shade to the
vegetation below, is home to unique flora and fauna.
1. has
2. with its
3. and
4. although has
3) Professor Raman wrote __________, which is expected to be published in
the next few months.
1. a new textbook last year
2. last year a new textbook
3. in last year a new textbook
4. during last year a new textbook
(Paper) UPTU: Model Question Paper MBA First Semester Examination (Communication For Management)
Uttar Pradesh Technical University
UPTU: Model Question Paper MBA First Semester Examination, 2008-09
COMMUNICATION FOR MANAGEMENT
PART I
Q.1. This question contain 20 objective type questions. Choose the correct answer and writes serial order.
1. the act of translating symbol of communication into their ordinary
meanings.
a) Acting
b) Receiving
c) Decoding
d) Encoding
2. ……. Communications Take place between people who work in different
departments and it different levels within an organization.
A) Horizontal B) Diagonal
C) Upward D) Downward
3. Intentionally screening the information and passing only such
information which will look favourable to the receiver :
a) Editing
b) Hiding
c) Filtering
d) Distorting
4. ………. Refers to the transmission of information concerning the affect of
any act of communication :
a) Two-way traffic
b) Clarity
c) Speed
d) Feedback
5. A interview conducted to express rebuke disapproval :
a) Reprimand
b) Stress
c) Grievance
d) Orientation
6. ……….. listening takes place when the listener on receiver on
constrained by various physiological and psychological factors :
a) Selective
b) Active
c) Comprehending
d) Passive
7. ………… means the study of the role of body movements such an winking.
Shrugging in communication .
a) Kinesics
b) Proxemics
c) Chronemics
d) Posture
(Paper) UPTU: Model Question Paper MBA First Semester Examination (Computer Applications In Management)
Uttar Pradesh Technical University
UPTU: Model Question Paper MBA First Semester Examination, 2008-09
COMPUTER APPLICATIONS IN MANAGEMENT
Time: 03
Hours
Max. Marks: 100
Note: The Question paper contains three parts, All questions are compulsory.
Part - I
Q. 1 This question contains 20 objective type questions. Choose the correct answer and writ its serial order.
1. The address of the cell at 27th column and 30th
row in a worksheet will be :
a) 27,30
b) AB27
c) AD27
d) AA30
2. An application receiving data is called ………………
a) Server application
b) Client application
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None of the above
3.To the past text from the clipboard in the document being edited, press
the key(s) :
a) Ctrl X
b) Ctrl V
c) Ctrl A
d) Ctrl P
4.Indicate which, of the following best describes the term SOFTWARE
a) Operating system program only
b) Application program only
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None of the above
5. A typical material management system contains following transaction
files:
a) Receipts from vendors
b) Issues to shop floors
c) Rejected materials returned to vendors
d) All the above
6. …………… is volatile memory.
a) RAM
b) ROM
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None of the above
7.The language that the computer understands, without requiring any
translation, is called …………..
a) Assembly language
b) High level language
c) Machine language
d) None
(Paper) UPTU: Model Question Paper MBA First Semester Examination (Marketing Management)
Uttar Pradesh Technical University
UPTU: Model Question Paper MBA First Semester Examination, 2008-09
MARKETING MANAGEMENT
PART I
Q.1. This question contains 20 objective type questions. Choose the correct answer and writtes serial order.
1)“Consumers may share a strong need that cannot be satisfied by an existing product”
The above mentioned statement indicates:
a) Nonexistent demand
b) Latent demand
c) Unwholesome demand
d) Full demand
2) “The concept that consumers will favour those products
that offer the most quality, performance, or innovative features” is:
a) product concept
b) production concept
c) selling concept
d) marketing concept
3) “Many people want a BMW sport car but only a few of them are
willing and able to buy one”, the statement indicates:
a) Needs
b) Wants
c) Demand
d) Desire
4) “Mr. Stephen brown, an American needs a veggie burger for breakfast,”
The statement indicates:
a) wants
b) Bundle
c) Product
d) Price
5) “The.....................concept is based on
the development, Design and implementation of marketing programs, processes, and
activities that Activities that recognize their interdependencies”.
a) Holistic marketing
b) Relationship marketing
c) B to B marketing
d) B to C marketing
(Paper) UPTU: Model Question Paper MBA First Semester Examination (Business Statistics)
Uttar Pradesh Technical University
UPTU: Model Question Paper MBA First Semester Examination, 2008-09
BUSINESS STATISTICS
PART I
Q.1. This questions contains 20 objective type questions. Choose the correct answer and write serial order. (1 x 20)
1. Identify the discrete variable from the following.
a. Length of a room.
b. Temperature of a Patient.
c. Height of a person.
d. Age on last birthday
2. The difference between the upper and the lower limits of a class is
called.
a. class min-point
b. class boundary
c. class interval
d. class frequency
3. The most suitable average that can be calculated from frequency
distribution with open end classes is
(a) Arithmetic mean
(b) Geometric mean
(c) Median
(d) Mode
4. Measure of dispersion which is affected most by extreme
observations is
(a) Range
(b) Quartile deviation
(c) Mean deviation
(d) Standard deviation
5. The Empirical relationship between mean, median and mode is
(a) mode=3median--2mean
(b) median=mode –2mean/3
(c) mean=3median—mode/2
(d) All are the correct
6. Cyclical fluctuations in a time series are caused by
(Paper) UPTU: Model Question Paper MBA First Semester Examination (Organizational Behaviour)
Uttar Pradesh Technical University
UPTU: Model Question Paper MBA First Semester Examination, 2008-09
ORGANIZATIONAL BEHAVIOUR
PART-1
Q,1. This questions contains 20 Objective type questions .choose the correct answer and writing serials order.
1.which of the following is best defined as a consciously coordinated
social unit. Composed to two or more people, which function on a relatively
continuous basis to achieve a common goal or set of goals ?
a. party
b. unit
c. team
d. community
e. organization
2. According Luthans and this associates, which of the following is
considered a part of traditional management?
a. disciplining
b. decision making
c. exchanging routine information
d. acquiring resources.
e. Investing
3. An OB study would be least likely to be used to focus on which of
the following problems?
a. An increase in absenteeism at a certain company
b. A fall in productivity in one shift of a manufacturing plant
c. A decrease in sales due to growing foreign competition
d. An crease in theft employees at a retail store
e. Excessive turnover in volunteer workers at a non-profit
organization
4. .............is a field of study that investigates impact
individuals, groups, and structure have on behaviors within organizations
for the purpose of applying such knowledge towards improving an
organization’s effectiveness.
a. organizational development
b. Human resources management
c. Organizational behavior
d. People management
e. Corporate strategy
(Paper) UPTU: Model Question Paper MBA First Semester Examination (Accounting And Financial Analysis)
Uttar Pradesh Technical University
UPTU: Model Question Paper MBA First Semester Examination, 2008-09
ACCOUNTING AND FINANCIAL ANALYSIS
1. This question contains 20 objective type questions. Choose the correct answer and writites serial order .
1. Debentures are:-
a. Long-term Liability
b. Short-term Liability
c. Asset
d. None of the above
2. A person who owes money to the firm is called a ...
a. Creditor
b. Debtor
c. Lender
d. None of the above
3 . The asset of a business on 31 march, 2008 are worth RS. 50,000 and its
capital is RS. 35,000. Its liability on that date shall be RS ...
a. 85,000/-.
b. 15,000/-.
c. 35,000/-.
d. 10,000/-.
4. The system of recording transactions based on duel aspect concept is
called ...
a. Double account system
b. Double entry system
c. single entry system
d. None of the above
5. The convention of conservatism, when applied to the balance sheet,
results in...
a. Understatement of assets
b. Understatement of liabilities
c. Overstatement of capital
d. None of the above.
6. A withdrawal of cash from business by the proprietor, Ram Kumar,
should be credited to...
a. Ram’s Account
b. Cash Account
c. Sales Account
d. Capital Account
(Paper) UPTU: Model Question Paper MBA First Semester Examination (Managerial Economics)
Uttar Pradesh Technical University
UPTU: Model Question Paper MBA First Semester Examination, 2008-09
Managerial Economics
Q.1 This question contains 20 Objective type questions. Choose the correct answer write serial order .
1. Managerial Economics is considered to be
(a) macro economics
(b) Applied macroeconomics
(c) International economics
(d) None of the above
2. policy decisions are normally taken at
(a) Top level management
(b) Middle level management
(c) Top level management
(d) None of the above
3. In case of substitute products
(a) As the price of the substitute products rises, demand for the
commodity rises
(b) As the price of the substitute products rises, demand for the
commodity falls
(c) As the price of the one commodity rises, demand for another
commodity rises
(d) As the price of the one commodity rises, demand for
another commodity rises
4. Law of supply states that
(a) when the price falls, the supply will also fall
(b) when the price falls, the supply increases
(c) when the price increases, the supply falls
(d) None of the above
5. Sloping downward or negative slope of demand curve states that
(a) Less units would be bought if price is reduced
(b) More units would be bought if price is increased
(c) More units would be bought if price is reduced
(d) None of the above
6. Law of demand states that
(a) Higher the prices, more would be the quantity demanded
(b) Higher the prices, lower would be the quantity demanded
(c) Both (a) s (b)
(d) None of the above
(Download) IIFT 2008 MBA (IB) Exam Paper
IIFT 2008 MBA (IB) Exam Paper
IIFT Entrance Exam Pattern (MBA- International Business)
- Type of Test: Multiple choice objective type written test (in English).
- Test Duration: Two hours
- Sections Covered: English Comprehension, General Knowledge & Awareness, Logical Reasoning and Quantitative Analysis.
A spiral is made up 13 successive semicircles, with center alternately at A and B,…………
- 144 cm
- 143 cm
- 174 cm
- None of the above
The mean salary of ICM Ltd. was Rs. 1500, and the standard deviation was Rs. 400…………..
- 460
- 480
- 580
- None of the above
A medical clinic test blood for certain disease from which approximately one person…………
- 47
- 25
- 21
- None of the above
The game of “chuck –a –luck” is played at carnivals in some parts of Europe. Its ……….
- 0.52
- 0.753
- 0.42
- None of the above
(Paper) Foreign Language Sample Test of English For TOEFL Exam
Foreign Language Sample Test of English For TOEFL Exam
NOTE: Answers are in RED.
1. When did Mary _____ college?
1) graduate
2) graduate from
3) graduating
4) graduating from
2. You look pale. You had better _____ a doctor.
1) consult
2) consult to
3) consult with
4) consult by
3. New York is a large city, _____?
1) aren't it
2) doesn't it
3) won't it
4) isn't it
4. Japanese houses are made of wood, so they easily _____.
1) catch to fire
2) catch the fire
3) catch on fire
4) catch with fire
5. Do you enjoy _____?
1) to hike
2) hiking
3) hike
4) to hiking
6. Mary has trouble _____.
1) to remember her homework
2) to remembering her homework
3) remember her homework
4) remembering her homework
(Sample Paper) ICICI Bank PO Sample Paper: Verbal/Numerical Comprehension
ICICI Bank PO Sample Paper: Verbal/Numerical Comprehension
VERBAL COMPREHENSION
Directions: Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.
Passage:
On clear moonless evenings when it is completely dark, you can sometimes see a
faint glow from the horizon. It is called the zodiacal light as it runs along
the zodiac, the constellation through which the planets appear to travel. This
glow is sunlight, reflected off dust particles in the solar system it is
brightest near the sun, so it is best visible after sunset or before dawn, when
the sun is just far enough below the horizon to leave the sky completely dark.
1. According to this passage the zodiac is a________
- Collection of sun signs
- Constellation
- Star
- Planet
2. The zodiacal light can be seen only on_____
- Moonless nights
- Starry Nights
- Moonless evenings
- Alternate days
Directions: Choose the best word from the given options to complete the sentence.
1. Passing gravy through a ________removes lumps.
- Mixture
- Sieve
- Tap
- Cap
2. The politician’s poor behaviour was overlooked because of his ________.
- Selfishness
- Reluctance
- Resistance
- Charisma
3. The latest novel in the series opened with a _________ of the previous books.
- Syntax
- Signage
- Symphony
- Synopsis
4. Salt is a __________ ingredient in the preparation of any type of food.
- Indicative
- Cheerful
- Outstanding
- Vital
(Sample Paper) TISS Sample Question Paper: M.A. (Women's Studies-Part-II)
Tata Institute of Social Sciences
Sample Question Paper
Written Test for Admission to M.A. in Women's Studies: 2009-2011
(Batch)
PART II
Duration: 1 Hour
Total Marks: 70
Instructions to Candidates:
This test is divided into two sections. Choose one question from each section
and follow the instructions. Section 1 carries 40 marks, Section 2 carries 30
marks.
SECTION – A Marks: 40
Answer any one in about 750 words.
Q.1. Is education the path to women’s emancipation?
Q.2. Should vulgar media representations of women be banned?
SECTION – B Marks: 30
Choose any one of the two texts, read and answer accompanying questions:
Q.3. The barriers to women entering the professions are formidable.
They are such that those women who do get professional jobs are an extremely
privileged group. The privileges they gain from being members of this elite
group help to liberate them from many of the constraints with which less
fortunate women are still burdened.
They can develop their talents through education. They receive the material and
social benefits of economic independence and an interesting occupation. They are
given greater respect and social esteem by family and friends.
Yet they do not share all the privileges of the professional class, simply because they are women. The freedoms which they gain are limited by the institution of male domination even at the top level of the occupational class hierarchy.
(an excerpt from Joanna Liddle and Rama Joshi’s Daughters of Independence. (1986) Kali for Women.p 157)
Questions:
Q.3A. What are the barriers to women entering the professions?
Q.3B. Do you think reservation for women in professions is required to help them deal with these barriers? Please elaborate.
OR
(Sample Paper) TISS Sample Question Paper: All Programs (PART-I)
Tata Institute of Social Sciences
Sample Question Paper
Written Test for Admission to
all the programs 2009-2011
PART I
Duration: 45 Hour
Total Marks: 50
Instructions to Candidates:
Description of the Part I Test
| Total marks allotted | 50 |
| No. of questions | 50 |
| Time allotted | 45 minutes |
| Sectional time limit | No |
| Sectional cut off | No |
| Type of Question | Multiple Choice |
|
No negative marking |
|
|
Try to attempt all the questions |
|
(Sample Paper) TISS Sample Question Paper: M.A. (Globalisation and Labour-PART-II)
Tata Institute of Social Sciences
Sample Question Paper
Written Test for Admission to M.A. in Globalisation and Labour: 2009-2011
(Batch)
PART II
Duration: 1 Hour
Total Marks: 50
Instructions to Candidates:
- This Test Booklet consists of 50 (FIFTY) questions. All items are compulsory and carry equal marks.
- You are required to select the correct/most appropriate answer from the given choices and fill in the Answer-sheet.
- This is an OMR-based Exam
- There is no negative marking in this test.
Q.1. SEWA Bank is:
(a) An exclusive bank of women in informal employment
(b) An urban cooperative bank
(c) The rural branch of Bank of India
(d) An association of self-help organizations
Q.2. The World Bank is located in:
(a) Geneva
(b) Rome
(c) Washington
(d) New York
Q.3. The World Bank was started to:
(a) Monitor the credit flows of banks in developing countries
(b) Monitor the credit flows of banks in all countries
(c) Provide soft loans for development
(d) Regulate international credit
Q.4. The World Bank was established:
(a) By the USA to help developing countries
(b) By the USA to help Europe recover from World War Two
(c) By International Monetary Fund to provide loans for development
(d) By Bretten Woods conference
Q.5. The International Monetary Fund is:
(a) A fund created to regulate balance of payments
(b) A fund created by UNO to help poorer countries getting foreign aid
(c) A body that regulates internal economic policies of countries with foreign
loans
(d) A fund that regulates balance of credits
Q.6. World Trade Organisation was earlier known as:
(a) International Alliance for Trade
(b) General Agreement on Trade and Travel
(c) General Agreement on Trade and Tariffs
(d) International Agreement on Trade and Tariffs
Q.7. Which of the Indian Universities celebrated their sesquicentennial
year in 2007?
(a) Mumbai University, Chennai University, Kolkata University
(b) Mumbai University, Madras University, 'Calcutta University
(c) Benares Hindu University, Delhi University, Aligarh Muslim University
(d) Mumbai University, Delhi University, Kolkata University
Q.8. UNCTAD stands for:
(a) United Nations Council for Total Aid
(b) United Nations Conference on Trade and Development
(c) United Nations Council on Trade and Development
(d) United Nations Conference on Tourism and Development
Q.9. The World Economic Forum is located in:
(a) Geneva
(b) Washington
(c) Nairobi
(d) Davos
Q.10. Thomas Friedman is the author of:
(a) The Flat World
(b) Fortune at the Bottom of the Pyramid
(c) The World is Flat
(d) The BPO Revolution
(Sample Paper) TISS Sample Question Paper: M.A./M.Sc. (Disaster Management- Part-II)
Tata Institute of Social Sciences
Sample Question Paper
Written Test for Admission to M.A./M.Sc. in Disaster Management: 2009-2011
(Batch)
PART II
Duration: 1 Hour
Total Marks: 50
Instructions to Candidates: Attempt one question from each section Every
question carries equal weightage Word limit- 750 words for each section
(Sample Paper) TISS Sample Question Paper: M.A. (Disability Studies and Action-PART-II)
Tata Institute of Social Sciences
Sample Question Paper
Written Test for Admission to M.A. in Disability Studies and Action:
2009-2011 (Batch)
PART II
Duration: 1 Hour
Total Marks: 70
Instructions to Candidates: Maximum word limit is 1500 words
Please use a blue or black ink/ballpoint pen only. Answer the questions in the
question paper itself. No additional sheets will be provided.
(Sample Paper) TISS Sample Question Paper (Analytical Ability and Quantitative Reasoning)
Tata Institute of Social Science Sample Question Paper
Duration: 1 Hour
Total Marks: 50
SECTION – A Marks:15 (Analytical Ability and Quantitative Reasoning)
Instructions to Candidates:
- Answer all questions
- Each question carries 01 (one) mark
1. The cube root of 0.000216
is –
A) 0.6
B) 0.06
C) 0.006
D) None of the above
2. The sum of squares of two
numbers is 68 and square of their
difference is 36. The product of two
numbers is -
A) 16
B) 32
C) 58
D) 72
3. The number whose fifth part
increased by 5 is equal to fourth
part diminished by 5 is-
A) 100
B) 150
C) 200
D) 250
4. The product of a boy’s age
(in years) 5 years ago with his age
(in years) 9 years later is 15.
A) 6 years
B) 8 years
C) 9 years
D) 10 years
5. 48
%12
x (9/8
of 4/3 % 3/4 of 2/3) is -
A) 11/3
B) 3
C) 12
D) None of the above




