SECTION A: VERBAL AND LOGICAL ABILITY

Analyse the following passage and provide an appropriate answer for the question nos. 1 through 7 that follow:

India is renowned for its diversity. Dissimilitude abounds in every sphere -from the physicalelements of its land and people to the intangible workings of its beliefs and practices. Indeed,given this variety, India itself appears to be not a single entity but an amalgamation, a "constructs" arising from the conjoining of innumerable, discrete parts. Modem scholarshiphas,quiteproperly,tended to explore these elements in isolation. (In part, this trend represents the conscious reversal of the stance taken by an earlier generation of scholars whose work reified India into a monolithic entity - a critical element in the much maligned "Orientalist" enterprise.) Nonetheless, the representation of India as a singular "Whole" is not an entirely capricious enterprise; for India is an identifiable entity, united by - if not born out of - certain deep and pervasive structures. Thus, for example, the Hindu tradition has long maintained a body of mythology that weaves the disparate temples, gods, even geographic landscapes that exist throughout the subcontinent into a unified, albeit syncretic, whole. In the realm of thought, there is no more pervasive, unifying structure than karma. It is the "doctrine" or "law" that ties actions to results and creates a determinant link between an individual's status in this life and his or her fate in future lives. Following what is considered to be its appearances in the Upanishads, the doctrine reaches into nearly every corner of Hindu thought. Indeed, its dominance is such in the Hindu world view that karma encompasses, at the same time, life-affirming and life-negating functions; for just as it defines the world in terms of the "positive" function of delineating a doctrine of rewards and punishments, so too it defines the world through its "negative" representation of action as an all but inescapable trap, an unremitting cycle of death and rebirth. Despite - or perhaps because of- karma's ubiquity, the doctrine is not easily defined.

Wendy Doniger O'Flaherty reports of a scholarly conference devoted to the study of karma that although the participants admitted to a general sense of the doctrine's parameters, considerable time was in a "lively but ultimately vain attempt to define. karma and rebirth". The base meaning of the term "karma" (or, more precisely, in its Sanskrit stem form, karman a neuter substantive) is "action". As a doctrine, karma encompasses a number of quasi-independent concepts: rebirth (punarjanam), consequence (phala, literally "fruit," a term that suggests the "ripening" of actions into consequences), and the valuation or "ethic-ization" of acts, qualifying them as either "good" (punya or sukarman) or "bad" (papam or duskarman). In a general way, however, for at least the past two thousand years, the following (from the well known text, the Bhagavata Purana) has held true as representing the principal elements of the harm a doctrine: "The same person enjoys the fruit of the same sinful or a meritorious act in the next world in the same manner and to the same extent according to the manner and extent, to which that (sinful or meritorious) act has been done by him in this world." Nevertheless, depending on the doctrine's context, which itself ranges from its appearance in a vast number of literary sources to its usage on the popular level, not all these elements may be present (though in a general way they may be implicit).

1. The orientalist perspective, according to the author:
(A) Viewed India as a country of diversity.
(B) Viewed India as if it was a single and unitary entity devoid of diversity.
(C) Viewed India both as single and diverse entity.
(D) Viewed India as land of karma.
(E) Viewed India in the entirety.

2. "Reify" in the passage means:
(A) To make real out of abstract
(B) Reversal of stance
(C) Unitary whole
(D) Diversity
(E) Unity in diversity

3. "Ethic-ization" in the passage means
(A) Process of making something ethical
(B) Converting unethical persons into ethical
(C) Judging and evaluation.
(D) Teaching ethics
(E) None of the above

4. Consider the following statements:
(1) Meaning of karma is contextual.
(2) Meaning of karma is not unanimous.
(3) Meaning of karma includes many other quasi-independent concepts.
(4) Karma also means actions and their rewards.
Which of the above statements are true?
(A) 1,2,3
(B) 2,3,4
(C) 1,3,4
(D) None of the above
(E) All the four are true

5. The base meaning of karma is:
(A) reward and punishment.
(B) only those actions which yield a "phala".
(C) any action.
(D) ripening of actions into consequences.
(E) None of the above

6. As per the author, which of the following statements is wrong?
(A) India is a diverse country.
(B) Doctrine of karma runs across divergent Hindu thoughts.
(C) Doctrine of karma has a rich scholarly discourse.
(D) Scholars could not resolve the meaning of karma.
(E) Modern scholars have studied Hinduism as a syncretic whole.

7. Which of the following, if true, would be required for the concept of karma - as defined in Bhagavata Purana - to be made equally valid across different space-time combinations?
(A) Karma is judged based on the observers' perception, and hence the observer is a necessary condition for its validity.
(B) Karma is an orientalist concept limited to oriental countries. (C) Each epoch will have its own understanding of karma and therefore there can not be uniform
validity of the concept of karma.
(D) The information of the past actions and the righteousness of each action would be embodied in the individual.
(E) Each space-time combination would have different norms of righteousness and their respective expert panels which will judge each action as per those norms.

Directions (8 -12): Choose the appropriate words to fill in the blanks.

8. Mark Twain was responsible for many striking, mostly cynical ______, such as "Always do right. That will gratify some of the people, and astonish the rest." ______can sometimes end up as _____, but rarely would someone use them as an ______.
(A) epitaphs, Epitaphs, epigrams, epigraph
(B) epigraphs, Epigraphs, epitaphs, epigraph
(C) epigrams, Epitaphs, epigrams, epigraph
(D) epitaphs, Epitaphs, epigraphs, epigram
(E) epigrams, Epigrams, epigraphs, epitaph

9. A candidate in the medical viva voce exam faced a tinge of intellectual _______when asked to spell the_____ gland. The fact that he carried notes on his person would definitely be termed as_____ by faculty, but may be termed as ______ by more generous sections of students.
(A) ambivalence, prostrate, amoral, immoral
(B) ambiguity, prostrate, amoral, immoral
(C) ambivalence, prostrate, immoral, amoral
(D) ambivalence, prostate, immoral, amoral
(E) ambiguity, prostrate, immoral, amoral

10. It is not_____ democratic that the parliament should be _____ on issues and resort to passing______ rather than have an open debate on the floor of the house.
(A) quite, quite, ordinances
(B) quite, quiet, ordnances
(C) quiet, quite, ordnances
(D) quite, quiet, ordinances
(E) quiet, quiet, ordinances

11. In a case of acute _______, _________ membranes secrete excessive__________ .
(A) sinus, mucous, mucous
(B) sinus, mucus, mucous
(C) sinus, mucous, mucus
(D) sinusitis, mucus, mucous
(E) sinusitis, mucous, mucus

12. If a person makes the statement: “I never speak the truth.” The person can be said to be____.
(A) speaking the truth.
(B) lying.
(C) lying as well as speaking the truth
(D) making a logically contradictory statement.
(E) partially speaking the truth and partially lying.

Analyze the passage given and provide an appropriate answer for the question nos. 13 through 15 that follow.

Deborah Mayo is a philosopher of science who has attempted to capture the implications of the new experimentalism in a philosophically rigorous way. Mayo focuses on the detailed way in which claims are validated by experiment, and is concerned with identifying just what claims are borne out and how. A key idea underlying her treatment is that a claim can only be said to be supported by experiment if the various ways in which the claim could be as fault have been investigated and eliminated. A claim can only be said to be borne out by experiment, and a severe test of a claim, as usefully construed by Mayo, must be such that the claim would be unlikely to pass it if it were false. Her idea can be explained by some simple examples. Suppose Snell's law of refraction of light is tested by some very rough experiments in which very large margins of error are attributed to the measurements of angles of incidence and refraction, and suppose that the results are shown to be compatible with the law within those margins of error.

Has the law been supported by experiments that have severely tested it? From Mayo's perspective the answer is "no" because, owing to the roughness of the measurements, the law of refraction would be quite likely to pass this test even if it were false and some other law differing not too much from Snell's law true. An exercise I carried out in my school-teaching days serves to drive this point home. My students had conducted some not very careful experiments to test Snell's law. I then presented them with some alternative laws of refraction that had been suggested in antiquity and mediaeval times, prior to the discovery of Snell's law, and invited the students to test them with the measurements they had used to test Snell's law; because of the wide margins of error they had attributed to their measurements, all of these alternative laws pass the test. This clearly brings out the point that the experiments in question did not constitute a severe test of Snell's law. The law would have passed the test even if it were false and one of the historical alternatives true.

13. Which of the following conclusion can be drawn from the passage?
(A) Experimental data might support multiple theoretical explanations at the same time, hence validity of theories needs to be tested further.
(B) Precise measurement is a sufficient condition to ensure validity of conclusions resulting from an experiment.
(C) Precise measurement is both a necessary and sufficient condition to ensure validity of conclusions resulting from an experiment.
(D) Precise measurement along with experimenter's knowledge of the theory underpinning the experiment is sufficient to ensure the validity of conclusions drawn from experiments.
(E) All of these

14. As per Mayo's perspective, which of the following best defines the phrase "scientific explanation"?
(A) One which is most detailed in its explanation of natural phenomena.
(B) One which has been thoroughly tested by scientific experts.
(C) One which survives examinations better than other explanations.
(D) One which refutes other explanations convincingly.
(E) All of these.

15. The author's use of Snell's law of refraction to illustrate Mayo's perspective can best said to be
(A) Contrived.
(B) Premeditated.
(C) Superfluous.
(D) Illustrative.
(E) Inadequate.

Analyse the passage given and provide an appropriate answer for the question nos. 16 through 19 that follow.
Enunciated by Jung as an integral part of his psychology in 1916 immediately after his unsettling confrontation with the unconscious, the transcendent function was seen by Jung as uniting the opposites, transforming psyche, and central to the individuation process. It also undoubtedly reflects his personal experience in coming to terms with the unconscious. Jung portrayed the transcendent function as operating through symbol and fantasy and mediating between the opposites of consciousness and the unconscious to prompt the emergence of a new, third posture that transcends the two. In exploring the details of the transcendent function and its connection to other Jungian constructs, this work has unearthed significant changes, ambiguities, and inconsistencies in Jung's writings. Further, it has identified two separate images of the transcendent function: (1) the narrow transcendent function, the function or process within Jung's pantheon of psychic structures, generally seen as the uniting of the opposites of consciousness and the unconscious from which a new attitude emerges; and (2) the expansive transcendent function, the root metaphor for psyche or being psychological that subsumes Jung's pantheon and that apprehends the most fundamental psychic activity of interacting with the unknown or other. This book has also posited that the expansive transcendent function, as the root metaphor for exchanges between conscious and the unconscious, is the wellspring from whence flows other key Jungian structures such as the archetypes and the Self, and is the core of the individuation process. The expansive transcendent function has been explored further by surveying other schools of psychology, with both depth and non-depth orientations, and evaluating the transcendent function alongside structures or processes in those other schools which play similar mediatory and/or transitional roles.

16. The above passage is most likely an excerpt from:
(A) A research note
(B) An entry on a psychopathology blog
(C) A popular magazine article
(D) A scholarly treatise
(E) A newspaper article

17. It can be definitely inferred from the passage above that
(A) The expansive transcendent function would include elements of both the Consciousness and the Unconscious.
(B) Archetypes emerge from the narrow transcendent function. (C) The whole work, from which this excerpt is taken, primarily concerns itself with the
consistencies in Jung's writings.
(D) Jung's pantheon of concepts subsumes the root metaphor of psyche.
(E) The transcendent is the core of the individuation process.

18. A comparison similar to the distinction between the two images of the transcendent function would be:
A. raucous: hilarious
B. synchronicity: ontology
C. recession: withdrawal
D. penurious: decrepit
E. none of the above

19. As per the passage, the key Jungian structure - other than the Self - that emerges from theexpansive transcendent function may NOT be expressed as a(n):
A. Stereotype
B. Anomaly
C. Idealized model
D. Original pattern
E. Epitome

Directions (20-27): Go through the caselets below and answer the questions that follow. Question No (20-21):
According to recent reports, CEOs of large organisations are paid more than CEOs of small organisations. It does not seem fair that just because a CEO is heading a big organisation s/he should be paid more. CEOs' salary should be related to performance, especially growth in terms of sales and profits. Of course, big organisations are more complex than the small, but all CEOs require significant amount of energy and time in managing organisations. There is no proof that CEOs of big organisations are more stressed than CEOs of small organisations. All CEOs should be paid according to their performance.

20. A person seeking to refute the argument might argue that
A. CEOs should be paid equally.
B. Managing big organisation is more challenging than small.
C. CEOs, who travel more should be paid more.
D. If CEOs of small companies perform well, the company would become big and so would be
CEOs' salary.
E. Highly qualified CEOs should be paid more because they have acquired difficult education.

21. Which of the following, if true, would strengthen the speaker's argument?
A. CEOs of small organisations come from good educational background.
B. CEOs of big organisations are very difficult to hire.
C. A few big family businesses have CEOs from within the family.
D. Big organisations contribute more towards moral development of society.
E. CEOs in big organisation take much longer to reach top, as compared to their counterparts in small organisations.

Question No (22-23):
Hindi ought to be the official language of India. There is no reason for the government to spend money printing documents in different languages, just to cater to people who cannot read/write Hindi. The government has better ways to spend tax payers' money. People across India should read/write Hindi or learn it at the earliest.

22. Which of the following, if true, would weaken the speaker's argument the most?
A. The government currently translates official documents into more than eighteen languages.
B. Hindi is the most difficult language in the world to speak.
C. Most people who travel across India learn Hindi within five years.
D. Making Hindi the official language is a politically unpopular idea.
E. People who are multilingual usually pay maximum taxes.

23. United Nations members contribute funds, proportionate to their population, for facilitating smooth functioning of the UN. By 2010, India, being the most populous nation on the planet, would contribute the maximum amount to the UN. Therefore, official language of United Nations should be changed to Hindi. Which of the following is true?
A. The point above contradicts the speaker's argument.
B. The point above extends the speaker's argument.
C. The point above is similar to speaker's argument.
D. The point above concludes speaker's argument.
E. The point above strengthens the speaker's argument.

Question No (24-25):
The Bistupur-Sakchi corner needs a speed-breaker. Loyola school children cross this intersection, on their way to the school, and many a times do not check out for traffic. get to read regular reports of cars and other vehicles hitting children. I know that speed-breakers are irritating for drivers, and I know that children cannot be protected from every danger, but this is one of the worst intersections in town. There needs to be a speed-breaker so that vehicles have to slow down and the children be made safer.

24. Which of the following arguments is used in the above passage?
A. Analogy—comparing the intersection to something dangerous.
B. Emotive—referring to the safety of children to get people interested.
C. Statistical analysis—noting the number of children hit by vehicles.
D. Personalization—telling the story of one child's near accident at the intersection.
E. Attack—pointing out people who an against speed-breakers as being uncaring, about children.

25. According to a recent research conducted by the district road planning department, ten percent students come wit parents in cars, twenty percent students us auto-rickshaws, twenty percent students us taxis, forty percent students use the school buses and ten percent students live in the hostel inside the school. Which of the following is true about the above paragraph?
A. It extends speaker's argument using analogy.
B. It extends the speaker's argument using statistical data.
C. It is similar to speaker's argument.
D. It concludes speaker's argument by using personalization.
E. It contradicts the speaker's argument using statistical data.

Question No (26-27):
History, if viewed a repository not merely of anecdotes chronology, could produce a decisive transformation in the image of science which we are now possessed. That image has previously been drawn, even scientists themselves, mainly from the study of finished scientific achievements as the are recorded in the classics and, more recently, in the textbooks from which each new scientific generation learns to practice its trade.

26. Which of the following best summarizes the above paragraph?
A. Scientific achievements are recorded in classics and text books.
B. History of science can be inferred from finished scientific achievement
C. Different ways of looking at history can produce altogether different knowledge.
D. Text books may be biased.
E. All of above.

27. Which of the following statements is the author most likely to agree with?
A. History of science presents a scientific way of looking at scientific developments and thus contributes to progress in science.
B. History of science should contain only the chronology of the scientific achievements.
C. More number of scientific theories results in more number of publications, which benefits publishers.
D. History of science should purposely present different images of science to people.
E. History of science can present multiple interpretations to people regarding the process of scientific developments.

Analyse the passage given and provide an appropriate answer for the question nos. 28 through 33 that follow.
Every conscious mental state has a qualitative character that we refer to as mood. We are always in a mood that is pleasurable or unpleasurable to some degree. It may be that bad moods relate to their being too positive reinforcement in a person's current life and too many punishments. In any case, moods are distinguished from emotions proper by not being tied to any specific object. But, this distinction is not watertight, in that emotions need not be directed at objects that are completely specific (we can be angry just at people generally) while there is always a sense of a mood having a general objective like the state of the world at large. Moods manifest themselves in positive or negative feelings that are tied to health, personality, or perceived quality of life.

Moods can also relate to emotions proper, as in the aftermath of an emotional incident such as the failure to secure a loan. A mood on this basis is the mind's judgment on the recent past. For Goldie, emotion can bubble up and down within a mood, while an emotion can involve characteristics that are non-object specific. What is important for marketing is that moods colour outlook and bias judgements. Hence the importance of consumer confidence surveys, as consumer confidence typically reflects national mood. There is mood - congruence when thoughts and actions fall inline with mood. As Goleman says, there is a "constant stream of feeling" that runs "in perfect to our steam of thought". Mood congruence occurs because a positive mood evokes pleasant associations that lighten subsequent appraisals (thoughts) and actions, while a negative arouses pessimistic associations that influence future judgment and behaviour. When consumers are in a good mood, they are more optimistic about buying more confident in buying, and much more willing to tolerate things like waiting in line. On the other hand, being in a mood makes buying behaviour in the "right mood" by the use of music and friendly staff or, say, opens bakeries in shopping malls that delight
the passer-by with the smell of fresh bread. Thayer views moods as a mixture of biological and psychological influences and, as such, a sort of clinical thermometer, reflecting all the internal and external events that influence us. For Thayer, the key components of mood are energy and tension in different combinations. A specific mixture of energy and tension, together with the thoughts they influence, produces moods.

He discusses four mood states:

• Calm-energy: he regards this as the optimal mood of feeling good

• Calm-tiredness: he regards this as feeling a little tired without any stress, which can be pleasant.

• Tense-energy: involves a low level of anxiety suited to a fight-or-flight disposition.

• Tense-tiredness: is a mixture of fatigue and anxiety, which underlies the unpleasant feeling of depression.

People generally can "feel down" or "feel good" as a result of happenings in the world around them. This represents the national mood. People feel elated when the national soccer team wins an international match or depressed when their team has lost. An elated mood of calm -energy is an optimistic mood, which is good for business. Consumers, as socially involved individuals, are deeply influenced by the prevailing social climate. Marketers recognize the phenomenon and talk about the national mood being, say for or against conspicuous consumption. Moods do change, though. Writing early in the nineteenth century, Toqueville describes an American elite embarrassed by the ostentation of material display; in the "Gilded Age", sixty years later, many were only too eager to embrace a materialistic vulgarity. The problem lies in anticipating changes in national mood, since a change in mood affects everything from buying of equities to the buying of houses and washing machines.

Thayer would argue that we should be interested in national events that are likely to produce a move toward a tense- tiredness state or toward a calm-energy state, since these are the polar extremes and are more likely to influence behaviour. Artists sensitive to national moods express the long-term changes. An example is the long - term emotional journey from Charles Dickens's depiction of the death of little Nell to Oscar Wilde's cruel flippancy about it. "One would have to have a heart of stone not to laugh at the death of little Nell", which reflects the mood change from high Victorian sentimentality to the acerbic cynicism of the end of the century, as shown in writers like Thomas Hardy and artists like Aubrey Beardsley. Whenever the mind is not fully absorbed, consciousness is no longer focused and ordered. Under such conditions the mind falls into dwelling on the unpleasant, with a negative mood developing. Csikszentmihalyi argues that humans need to keep consciousness fully active is what influences a good deal of consumer behaviour. Sometimes it does not matter what we are shopping for - the point is to shop for anything, regardless, as consuming is one way to respond to the void in consciousness when there is nothing else to do.

28. Which one of the following statements best summarizes the above passage?
A. The passage highlights how moods affect nations.
B. The passage highlights the importance of moods and emotions in marketing.
C. The passage draws distinction between moods and emotions.
D. Some writers influenced national moods through their writings.
E. Thayer categorised moods into four states.

29. Which of the following is the closest to "conspicuous consumption" in the passage?
A. Audible consumption
B. Consumption driven by moods and emotions
C. Socially responsible consumption
D. Consumption of material items for impressing others
E. Private but not public consumption

30. What is "moods congruence"?
A. When moods and emotions are synchronized.
B. When moods are synchronous with thoughts and actions.
C. When emotions are synchronous with actions and thoughts.
D. When moods are synchronous with thoughts but not with action.
E. When moods are synchronous with action but not with thought.

31. Implication and Proposition are defined as follows:
Implication: a statement which follows from the given text. Proposition: a statement which forms a part of the given text. Consider the two statements below and decide whether they are implications or propositions.
I. The marketers should understand and make use of moods and emotions in designing and selling products and services.
II. Consuming is nothing but way of filling the void in consciousness.

A. Both statements are implications.
B. First is implication, second is proposition.
C. Both are propositions.
D. First is proposition, second is implication.
E. Both are neither implication nor proposition.

32. Which statements from the ones given below are correct?
1. In general, emotions are object specific
2. In general, moods are not object specific
3. Moods and emotions are same
4. As per Thayer, moods are a mix of biological and psychological influences
A 1,2,3
B. 2,3,4
C. 2,4,3
D. 1,2,4
E. All four are right.

33. The statement "Moods provide energy for human actions" is __.
A. always right.
B. always wrong.
C. sometimes right.
D. not derived from the passage.
E. contradictory.

Directions (34 - 36): Carefully read the statements in the questions below and arrange them in a logical order.

34: 1.So too it is impossible for there to be proposition of ethics. Proposition cannot express that is higher.

2. The sense of the world must lie outside the world. In the world everything is as it is, and everything happens as it does happen: in it no value exists- and if it did exist, it would have no value. If there is any value that does have a value, it must lie outside the whole sphere of what happens and is the case. For all that happens and is the case is accidental. What makes it non-accidental cannot lie within the world, since if it did it would itself be accidental. It must lie outsideworld.

3. It is clear that ethics cannot be put into words. Ethics is transcendental.

4. All propositions are of equal value.
A. 4-2-1-3
B. 2-1-3-4
C. 1-3-4-2
D. 4-3-1-2
E. 3-1-2-4

35:
1. The fact all contribute only to setting the problem, not to its solution.
2. How things are in the world is a matter of complete indifference for what is higher. God does not reveal himself in the world.
3. To view the world sub specie aetemi is to view it as a whole- a limited whole. Feeling the world as a limited whole- it is this that is mystical.
4. It is not how things are in the world that is mystical, but that it exists.
A. 1-2-3-4
B. 2-1-3-4
C. 2-1-4-3
D. 3-1-4-2
E. 3-4-1-2

36:
1. The operation is what has to be done to one proposition in order to make other out of it.
2. Structure of proposition stands in internal relations to one another.
3. In order to give prominence to these internal relations we can adopt the following mode of expression: we can represent a proposition as the result of an operation that produces it out of other propositions (which are bases of the operation).
4. An operation is the expression of a relation between the structures of its result and of its bases.
A. 1-2-3-4
B. 2-3-4-1
C. 4-3-1-2
D. 2-1-3-4
E. 4-1-2-3

Directions (37-38): Go through the caselets below and answer the questions that follow.

37. Goodricke Group Ltd is planning to give top priority to core competence of production and marketing of tea in 2007. The company intends to increase the production of orthodox varieties of tea. Goodricke is planning to invest Rs. 10 crore to modernise the factories. The company has announced a net profit of Rs. 5.49 crore for 2006 as against Rs. 3.76 crore in 2005. Which of the following can be deduced from the caselet?
A. Production and marketing is core competency of Goodricke Group.
B. Increase in production of existing products enhances core competence.
C. Core competence leads to modernization.
D. Core competence can be used for furthering company's interests.
E. Goodricke has given top priority to production because it has earned net profits of Rs. 5.49 crore.

38. The author reflects on the concept of Blue Ocean Strategy. He explains that this concept delivers an instinctive framework for developing uncontested market space and making the competition irrelevant. The author remarks that Blue Ocean Strategy is about having the best mix of attributes that result in creation of uncontested market space and high growth, and not about being the best. The above paragraph appears to be an attempt at.
A. defining Blue Ocean strategy.
B. developing the framework for Blue Ocean strategy.
C. reviewing an article or a book on Blue Ocean strategy.
D. highlighting how Blue Ocean strategy leads to better returns.
E. None of above.

SECTION B: DATA INTERPRETATION AND QUANTITATIVE ABILITY
Note: All units of measurement are in centimetres, unless otherwise specified.

39. In the figure, number in any cell is obtained by adding two numbers in the cells directly below it. For example, 9 in the second row is obtained by adding the two numbers 4 and 5 directly below it. The value of X-Y is
A.2
B.3
C.4
D.5
E.6

40. If F(x, n) be the number of ways of distributing "x" toys to "n" children so that each child receives at the most 2 toys then F(4,3)=_____?
A.2
B.3
C.4
D.5
E.6

41. In a cricket match. Team A scored 232 runs without losing a wicket. The score consisted of byes, wides and runs scored by two opening batsmen: Ram and Shyam. The runs scored by the two batsmen are 26 times wides. There are 8 more byes than wides. If the ratio of the runs scored by Ram and Shyam is 6:7, then the runs scored by Ram is
A. 88
B. 96
C. 102
D. 112
E. None of the above.

For questions 42 & 43, a statement is followed by three conclusions. Select the answer from the following options.
A. Using the given statement, only conclusion I can be derived.
B. Using the given statement, only conclusion II can be derived.
C. Using the given statement, only conclusion III can be derived.
68
Y=29
9
Y 4 5 2 X
D. Using the given statement, all conclusions I, II and III can be derived.
E. Using the given statement, none of the three conclusions I, II and III can be derived.

42. An operation "#" is defined by a # b = 1 – b/a
Conclusion I. (2 # 1) # (4 # 3) = -1
Conclusion II. (3 #1) # (4 #2) = -2
Conclusion III. (2#3) # (1#3) = 0

43. A, B, C and D are whole numbers such that
A+B+C =118, B + C + D = 156, C + D + A = 166, D + A + B = 178
Conclusion I. A is the smallest number and A=21.
Conclusion II. D is the largest number and D=88.
Conclusion III. B is the largest number and B=56.

44. Let X= {a, b, c} and Y= {l, m}. Consider the following four subsets of X x Y.
F1 = { (a, l), (a, m), (b, l), (c, m)}, F2={(a, l), (b, l), (c, l)}, F3={(a, l), (b, m), (c, m)}, F4={(a, l), (b, m)}
Which one, amongst the choices given below, is a representation of functions from X to Y?
A. F1, F2 and F3
B. F2, F3 and F4
C. F2 and F3
D. F3 and F4
E. None of the above

45. ABCD is a rectangle with AD = 10. P is a point on BC such that angle APD = 90° If DP = 8 then the length of BP is __?
A. 6.4
B. 5.2
C. 4.8
D. 3.6
E. None of the above

46. Four digits of the number 29138576 are omitted so that the result is as large as possible. The largest omitted digit is
A. 9
B. 8
C. 7
D. 6
E. 5

47. Rajiv is a student in a business school. After every test he calculates his cumulative average. QT and OB were his last two tests. 83 marks in QT increased his average by 2. 75 marks in OB further increased his average by 1. Reasoning is the next test, if he gets 51 in Reasoning, his average will be ___?
A. 59
B. 60
C. 61
D. 62
E. 63

48. If [x] denotes the greatest integer <=x, then =
A. 98
B. 67
C. 66
D. 34
E. 33

49. ABCD is a square. P is the midpoint of AB. The line passing through A and perpendicular to DP intersects the diagonal at Q and BC at R. If AB = 2 then PR = ___?
A. 1/2
B.
C.
D. 1
E. None of the above.

50. For each p>1, a sequence {An} is defined by Ao = 1 and An = pn + (-1)n An-1 for each n >= 1. For how many integer values of p, 1000 is a term of the sequence?
A. 8
B. 7
C. 5
D. 4
E. None of the above.

51. If 0<p< 1 then roots of the equation (1 - p)x2 + 4x + p = 0 are __?
A. Both 0
B. Imaginary
C. Real and both positive
D. Real and both negative
E. Real and of opposite sign.

52. If x>0, the minimum value of is______?
A.1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 6
E. None of the above.

53. Consider a sequence –6, –12, 18, 24, –30, –36, 42,..... . If sum of the first n terms of the sequence is 132, then the value of n is ___?
A. 11
B. 13
C. 18
D. 22
E. 24

54. The number of possible real solution(s) of y in equation y2 – 2y cos x + 1 = 0 is ___?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. None of the above.

55. In a triangle ABC, AB = 3, BC =4 and CA = 5. Point D is the midpoint of AB, point E is on segment AC and point F is on segment BC. If AE = 1.5 and BF = 0.5 then angle DEF =
A. 30°
B. 45°
C. 60°
D. 75°
E. Cannot be determined

56. If 3f(x + 2) + 4f(1/x+2)) = 4x, x ≠ –2, then f(4) =
A. 7
B. 52/7
C. 8
D. 56/7
E. None of the above.

57. A train left station X at A hour B minutes. It reached station Y at B hour C minutes on the same day, after travelling for C hours A minutes (clock shows time from 0 hours to 24 hours). Number of possible value(s) of A is __.
A. 3
B. 2
C. 1
D. 0
E. None of the above.

Questions 58-60:
A, B, C, D, E and F are six positive integers such that
B+C+D+E = 4A, C+F = 3A, C + D + E = 2F, F = 2D, E + F = 2C + 1. If A is a prime number between 12 and 20, then

58. The value of C is
A. 13
B. 17
C. 19
D. 21
E. 23

59. The value of F is
A. 14
B. 16
C. 20
D. 24
E. 28

60. Which of the following must be true?
A. D is the lowest integer and D = 14
B. C is the greatest integer and C = 23
C. F is the greatest integer and F = 24
D. B is the lowest integer and B = 12
E. A is the lowest integer and A = 13